Revision aid, not clinical advice. This page is educational material written for exam preparation. It is not a substitute for the current guideline or for clinical judgement, and must not be relied on for the care of any individual. Always check up-to-date national guidance and verify independently before acting on anything here.
DipMSK

The DipMSK
A clear, structured route through the FSEM Diploma in Musculoskeletal Medicine (DipMSK) — the Faculty of Sport & Exercise Medicine’s qualification in primary-care musculoskeletal medicine. Here is what the exam involves, and the question bank we have built to revise for it. Our timed mock is the full length of the real paper: 180 questions in 180 minutes.
The DipMSK is the FSEM’s qualification in primary-care musculoskeletal medicine, taken by GPs, physiotherapists, advanced nurse practitioners and other registered MSK clinicians. It rewards a structured, guideline-based approach to assessment, imaging and referral.
A single best-answer paper across the MSK syllabus
The DipMSK is one online written paper of single-best-answer questions — no OSCE — sat under timed conditions and awarded by the FSEM (UK).
Eligibility & exam dates
You do not need to be a doctor to sit the DipMSK. The FSEM opens it to registered musculoskeletal clinicians working across primary and community care.
Eligibility, fees and dates are set by the Faculty of Sport & Exercise Medicine and can change. International candidates registered with their relevant national body are also eligible, and other applicants are considered at the Faculty’s discretion. Always check the FSEM’s own DipMSK page before you apply.
What exam day is actually like
The things candidates tell us they wished they had known. Every figure here is the FSEM’s own, from the examination regulations, the syllabus, the published assessment metrics and the TestReach candidate guide — checked 27 September 2026.
One paper or two? The FSEM’s exam page describes a single paper of 180 questions in 180 minutes. Its own regulations describe two papers of 90 questions, and the TestReach candidate guide it links describes multi-part exams with a second start time and a fresh log-in to the remote proctor for Part Two. Both are the FSEM’s wording. Prepare for the two-part delivery, because that is what the platform documentation and the regulations say you will sit, and check your own booking confirmation for your two start times.
The pass mark moves. It is standard-set for each diet by modified Angoff, against the difficulty of the questions actually used, so the FSEM says it is likely to change from diet to diet. In practice it has been 68% in each of the last three. Nobody — including us — can tell you what it will be in 2027.
Check your kit early. TestReach asks for an Intel Core i3 or equivalent running Windows 7.0 or later or macOS 10.10 or later, at least 2 Mbps, a screen of 13 inches or more at 1024 × 768 or better, and a webcam and microphone. External monitors have to be physically disconnected and background applications closed for the secure browser check. This is the part that catches people out at 72 hours, not on the day.
The DipMSK syllabus
Eighteen subject areas spanning the FSEM DipMSK syllabus. The FSEM publishes no weighting, so our bank is weighted across them by our own judgement of how much each area is examined.
Everything for the exam, in one place
The same engine that powers our AKT and MSRA revision, focused on the DipMSK.
The Question Bank
1,000 original single-best-answer questions across all 18 subjects, each with a detailed explanation and named UK guidance.
Start practising →The DipMSK Revision Guide
Eighteen chapters — one for every subject area in the FSEM syllabus. Each works through recognition, the mimics to exclude, imaging, community management, the biopsychosocial picture and referral timeframes.
Open the guide →The DipMSK Core Curriculum
See exactly what the paper is built from — all eighteen subject areas, the outcome families that recur in every one, and where each is covered.
Open the Core Curriculum →The Imaging Decider
Right test, first time. The decision rules worth knowing verbatim, 106 imaging cautions, and the imaging line for all ninety presentations.
Open the decider →How Fast? Referral timing drill
Seventy-one referral decisions drawn from all eighteen chapters. Same-day, suspected cancer pathway, urgent or routine? The half of referral the syllabus asks for and revision skips.
Start the drill →DipMSK Core Resources
Straight from the Faculty — the official exam page, syllabus, key guidance and recommended reading.
Open resources →Revise & drill by module
Work through any of the 18 subjects with instant per-question feedback and worked explanations.
Open the question bank →Timed mock paper
Sit a timed 180-question mock over 180 minutes under exam conditions, then review every answer.
Start a mock →DipMSK Exam Trainer
The examination routine region by region, a decoder for every special test, and a red-flag triage drill — the practical half of the diploma.
Open the trainer →
“MSK medicine rewards a structured approach, not memorised lists. For almost any presentation, ask: are there red flags; is this mechanical or inflammatory; what does sensible first-line primary-care management look like; and when does this actually need imaging or referral? Get that scaffold right and most DipMSK questions fall into place.”
DipMSK Question Bank
Full access to all 1,000 questions, module revision, the timed mock.
Sitting on 27 May 2027? Twelve months covers it with room to spare.
- 1,000 original single-best-answer questions across 18 subjects
- Revise & drill by module with instant feedback
- Timed 180-question mock under exam conditions
You already have this
Your DipMSK question bank is unlocked — all 1,000 questions, module revision and the timed mock.
Go to your question bank →Try ten DipMSK questions, free
One question from each of ten DipMSK modules, with the same explanation members see after every answer: the Core Lens, a Deep Dive and a Founder’s Tip. No sign-up, no timer, nothing saved.
Question 1 of 10
Sharp anterior chest pain after heavy lifting
Scenario: A 30-year-old woman with no cardiac risk factors describes a few weeks of sharp anterior chest pain, worse on deep breathing, coughing and certain movements. It came on after a bout of heavy lifting. On examination she is well, observations are normal, and pressing on the costochondral junctions beside the sternum reproduces her exact pain. There is no breathlessness, no exertional component, and a recent ECG was normal. She is anxious it might be her heart.
Question: What is the most likely diagnosis and the key principle in making it safely?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is B: Costochondritis; it can be diagnosed once cardiac and other serious causes have been excluded.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Costochondritis is localised, reproducible anterior chest-wall pain: the hallmark is sharp anterior chest pain, often worse with movement or breathing, that is reproduced by palpating the costochondral or costosternal junctions
- It is a diagnosis of exclusion of serious causes: the safe principle is to settle on a musculoskeletal chest-wall label only after cardiac and other serious causes have been appropriately considered and excluded
- Reproducible tenderness is supportive but not wholly reassuring on its own: chest-wall tenderness raises the likelihood of an MSK cause but does not, by itself, exclude serious pathology, so the broader assessment and safety-netting still matter
- History and risk profile guide the work-up: a young patient with no cardiac risk factors, a clear mechanical trigger, normal observations and a normal ECG fits costochondritis, but the threshold for investigation rises with risk factors or atypical features
- Safety-netting completes the consultation: the patient should be advised what symptoms (e.g. exertional or radiating pain, breathlessness, collapse) would mean she must seek urgent review
Posterior heel pain and swelling in stiff work shoes
Scenario: A 40-year-old woman describes pain at the back of her right heel for two months, just in front of where the Achilles tendon attaches, with swelling and redness over the area and discomfort that is worse in stiff-heeled work shoes. The pain is at the back rather than under the heel, and there is no morning under-heel pain. There is localised tenderness and a soft, tender swelling deep to the Achilles insertion. The calf-squeeze (Simmonds’) test is normal.
Question: What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is D: Retrocalcaneal bursitis.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Posterior heel pain in front of the Achilles insertion suggests retrocalcaneal bursitis: the retrocalcaneal bursa sits between the calcaneus and the Achilles tendon, so a tender swelling deep to the insertion with posterior heel pain points to bursitis
- Footwear pressure is a classic aggravator: stiff or tight heel counters compress the bursa, which is why symptoms worsen in particular shoes and improve with open-backed footwear
- It is posterior, not plantar: the pain is at the back of the heel rather than under it, distinguishing it from plantar fasciitis, which causes inferior heel pain worst on the first morning steps
- A normal calf-squeeze test argues against Achilles rupture: an intact Simmonds’ (calf-squeeze) test with preserved plantar flexion makes a complete Achilles rupture unlikely
- First-line care is conservative: footwear modification (open-backed or padded heel), relative rest, ice, simple analgesia and addressing any tight calf or insertional tendinopathy form the initial approach
Alternating buttock pain worst in the second half of the night
Scenario: A 29-year-old man describes nine months of deep, alternating buttock and low-back pain that he initially put down to his hips. It is worst in the second half of the night and on waking, with morning stiffness lasting over an hour, and it eases with exercise and worsens with rest. He has a history of psoriasis and one episode of a painful red eye. On examination his hips rotate fully and painlessly, but there is tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. His symptoms began at age 28.
Question: According to NICE NG65, what is the most appropriate next step?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is E: Refer to rheumatology for suspected axial spondyloarthritis.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Inflammatory back pain has a recognisable pattern: onset under 45, insidious, with night pain, prolonged morning stiffness, improvement with exercise and worsening with rest is the classic picture of inflammatory rather than mechanical pain
- Sacroiliitis can masquerade as hip or buttock pain: alternating buttock pain with sacroiliac tenderness and a freely moving hip points to the sacroiliac joints, not the hip joint
- NICE NG65 gives an explicit referral rule: refer if low back pain started before 45 and has lasted three months or more, and four or more of these nine are present — onset before 35, waking in the second half of the night, buttock pain, improvement with movement, improvement within 48 hours of an NSAID, a first-degree relative with spondyloarthritis, current or past arthritis, current or past enthesitis, and current or past psoriasis. If exactly three are present, test HLA-B27 and refer only if it is positive (1.1.5). Uveitis is not one of the nine; it is a supporting extra-articular feature
- Associated features strengthen the case: psoriasis and an episode of acute anterior uveitis (a painful red eye) are recognised spondyloarthritis-associated conditions
- Early referral matters: timely diagnosis allows treatment that can control symptoms and limit structural progression
The acutely injured knee and the Ottawa Knee Rules
Scenario: A 30-year-old man is seen the morning after twisting his right knee playing five-a-side football. He felt a pop, the knee swelled within a couple of hours, and he found it hard to continue. In the consulting room he can bear weight and limp four steps, and he can flex the knee to about 100 degrees. There is a moderate effusion. The patella is not tender and there is no isolated tenderness over the head of the fibula. He is 30 years old.
Question: Using the Ottawa Knee Rules, what is the most appropriate decision about a knee X-ray?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is D: X-ray is not mandated by the Ottawa Knee Rules. Assess for ligamentous or meniscal injury and arrange follow-up.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- The Ottawa Knee Rules identify who needs an X-ray after acute knee injury: the rules recommend radiography if any one of five criteria is present, and are designed to safely reduce unnecessary X-rays after blunt knee trauma in adults
- The five criteria are specific: age 55 or over; isolated tenderness of the patella; tenderness at the head of the fibula; inability to flex to 90 degrees; or inability to bear weight for four steps both immediately and in the assessment setting
- This patient meets none of the criteria: he is 30, has no isolated patellar or fibular head tenderness, can flex beyond 90 degrees, and can weight-bear and take four steps, so an X-ray is not mandated
- A negative rule does not end the assessment: the rules predict fracture risk, not soft-tissue injury, so a pop, rapid effusion and difficulty continuing still warrant assessment for anterior cruciate ligament and meniscal injury
- A rapid haemarthrosis suggests significant soft-tissue injury: swelling within hours after a twisting injury with a pop is a classic clue to an anterior cruciate ligament tear and merits referral to the acute knee clinic or orthopaedics within days rather than waiting on a routine MRI
Five days of neck pain after long hours over a laptop
Scenario: A 34-year-old graphic designer presents with five days of right-sided neck pain and stiffness that began after a long stint hunched over a laptop. The pain is worse on turning her head and eases with gentle movement. There is no arm pain, no numbness or weakness, and no headache, dizziness or trauma. She is systemically well with no red-flag features. Examination shows reduced and uncomfortable neck rotation but a normal neurological examination of both upper limbs.
Question: What is the most appropriate management?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is C: Reassure her, advise analgesia and activity, without routine imaging.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Acute non-specific neck pain is a clinical diagnosis: a short history of mechanical neck pain after a postural trigger, with no neurological symptoms and no red flags, needs no imaging – NICE CKS supports diagnosis on history and examination alone
- Reassurance and the natural history are central: most acute mechanical neck pain settles within days to a few weeks, and explaining this favourable course is itself therapeutic
- Keep moving rather than immobilise: encouraging normal activity and gentle range-of-movement exercise is advised; prolonged rest and collars are discouraged because they can prolong stiffness and disability
- Simple analgesia supports activity: analgesia is used to enable movement and function rather than as an end in itself, following standard guidance and review
- Imaging does not change management here: routine X-ray or MRI in uncomplicated mechanical neck pain commonly reveals age-related changes seen in asymptomatic people and risks unnecessary worry and investigation
A markedly hot, red knee with fever in known osteoarthritis
Scenario: A 72-year-old man with known knee osteoarthritis presents with two days of a markedly hot, red, swollen and exquisitely painful knee that he can barely move. He feels feverish and unwell. This is quite different from his usual usage-related ache. He has no recent injury. On examination the knee is warm with a tense effusion and he is reluctant to flex it at all.
Question: What is the most appropriate immediate management?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is D: Arrange urgent same-day assessment for possible septic arthritis, including joint aspiration before antibiotics.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- A hot, acutely swollen joint is septic arthritis until proven otherwise: an acutely hot, red, very painful joint with systemic upset must be treated as possible septic arthritis, a medical emergency, not assumed to be an osteoarthritis flare
- This presentation is not a typical OA flare: osteoarthritis pain is usage-related and grumbling; a markedly hot, swollen, exquisitely painful joint with fever is a clear departure that demands escalation
- Urgent assessment and aspiration: the standard is same-day specialist assessment with joint aspiration for urgent microscopy, Gram stain and culture, ideally before antibiotics, to confirm or exclude infection
- Never inject a potentially infected joint: an intra-articular corticosteroid into a septic joint is dangerous and contraindicated until infection is excluded
- Safety-netting is part of OA care: patients with osteoarthritis should know which features mean urgent review, so a flare is never mistaken for, or masking, infection
Responding to a request for pregabalin
Scenario: A 41-year-old man with chronic primary pain, no neuropathic features and no diagnosis of an anxiety disorder, asks you to prescribe pregabalin. A relative found it helpful and he has read that it is ‘a nerve painkiller’. He has not yet tried structured exercise or psychological therapy. He has a past history of problematic alcohol use. He is keen for a quick pharmacological solution and is frustrated by previous advice to exercise.
Question: What is the most appropriate response to his request for pregabalin?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is C: Explain that NG193 advises against gabapentinoids for chronic primary pain, discuss the dependence risk, and offer exercise, psychological therapy or an antidepressant.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Gabapentinoids are on the NG193 ‘do-not-initiate’ list for primary pain: NICE advises against starting pregabalin or gabapentin for chronic primary pain because evidence of benefit is poor and the risk of harm and misuse is real
- Pregabalin is a controlled drug with dependence potential: it is a Class C controlled substance, can be misused and is particularly hazardous in those with a history of substance misuse
- His alcohol history sharpens the concern: a background of problematic alcohol use increases the risk of misuse and dangerous combined sedation, making initiation especially unwise
- Offer the recommended alternatives instead: exercise, psychological therapy (CBT or ACT) and a possible antidepressant are the supported options he has not yet tried
- Handle the request with empathy and clear information: validate his frustration, explain the evidence and risks, and redirect rather than simply refusing or capitulating
First traumatic anterior dislocation
Scenario: A 22-year-old rugby player sustained a first traumatic anterior dislocation of the right shoulder during a tackle. It was reduced in the emergency department and a post-reduction radiograph confirmed a congruent joint with no large bony fragment. He attends his GP a week later, neurovascularly intact, asking what happens next.
Question: What is the most appropriate next step in his management?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is D: Arrange rehabilitation and orthopaedic follow-up.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Younger age strongly predicts recurrence: the risk of further dislocation after a first traumatic anterior dislocation is highest in adolescents and young adults, especially contact athletes, and falls steadily with age
- Rehabilitation is the immediate mainstay: a short period of comfort, then progressive physiotherapy to restore strength and proprioception, is standard early care
- Arrange appropriate follow-up: high-risk young patients should be discussed with or referred to a shoulder service, where early stabilisation is sometimes considered
- Prolonged immobilisation does not prevent recurrence: lengthy sling use offers no clear benefit and risks stiffness; brief immobilisation for comfort then rehabilitation is preferred
- In older patients, think cuff tear: a first dislocation over about 40 should also prompt assessment for an associated rotator cuff tear
Consent for a subacromial corticosteroid injection
Scenario: A 54-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has subacromial pain syndrome that is limiting her physiotherapy because of pain. After discussion she agrees to a subacromial corticosteroid injection to help her engage with the exercise programme. As you take consent, she asks what she should expect and what could go wrong.
Question: What should she be told?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is D: A brief flare of pain, a temporary rise in glucose, and a small risk of infection.
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- Set expectations: short-term relief, not a cure: a subacromial corticosteroid injection gives time-limited pain relief that creates a window to engage with exercise; it is an adjunct, not a stand-alone or permanent fix
- Warn about a post-injection flare: pain may briefly increase for a day or two before it settles, and forewarning prevents alarm and unnecessary re-attendance
- Counsel people with diabetes about glucose: corticosteroid can transiently raise blood glucose for several days, so people with diabetes should be advised to monitor and expect a temporary rise
- Mention infection and local skin effects: there is a small risk of infection, and of skin depigmentation or fat atrophy at the injection site, which should be part of informed consent
- Keep exercising: the injection should enable rehabilitation, not replace it, so the exercise programme continues rather than stopping or resting rigidly
A uniformly swollen finger two days after a thorn prick
Scenario: A 39-year-old gardener attends with a swollen, painful right index finger two days after a rose-thorn prick to the finger pad. The whole finger is uniformly (fusiformly) swollen and held slightly bent. It is exquisitely tender all along the front (flexor surface) of the finger, and any attempt to passively straighten it causes severe pain. He feels feverish. The finger is red and warm. He has no significant medical history.
Question: What is the most appropriate management?
Pick an answer to reveal the explanation.
The correct answer is A: Refer immediately to hand surgery as an emergency: this is pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis (Kanavel’s signs).
Core Lens: High-Yield Takeaways
- The four Kanavel signs define flexor sheath infection: fusiform swelling of the whole digit, a flexed resting posture, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain on passive extension together indicate pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis
- Pain on passive extension and flexor-sheath tenderness are the most useful signs: these two findings are particularly suggestive of flexor sheath infection and should trigger urgent action
- A penetrating injury is a common precipitant: an inoculating injury such as a thorn prick, bite or puncture introduces bacteria into the closed flexor sheath, allowing rapid spread
- This is a surgical emergency requiring same-day hand-surgery referral: flexor sheath infection needs urgent referral for washout and intravenous antibiotics; delay risks tendon necrosis, stiffness and amputation
- Oral antibiotics and watchful waiting are not enough: managing a flexor sheath infection with oral antibiotics and a 48-hour review risks irreversible damage, so it must be referred immediately rather than treated as a superficial infection
Ten done
You answered 0 of 10 correctly.
Every one of the 1,000 DipMSK questions comes with an explanation like these, across 18 modules.
- Chest Wall & Thoracic Pain75%
- Elbow Region Conditions60%
- Foot & Ankle Conditions40%
- Frozen Shoulder20%
- Hip Region Conditions—
- Inflammatory Conditions—
- Knee Region Conditions—
- Low Back Pain & Radiculopathy—
- Neck Pain & Radiculopathy—
- Osteoarthritis (All Regions)—
- + 8 more modules
What it looks like inside: every module tracks your accuracy, so the bank tells you where to revise next. Timed mocks reproduce the written paper; untimed drills give the explanation after every question.
Your full DipMSK toolkit
Beyond the question bank — map the syllabus, sharpen high-yield reasoning, check your readiness, and plan your run-up.
Written by practising UK GPs — Dr Victoria Hammond and Dr David Palethorpe. Education only — always confirm against current guidance. Core Revision is an independent revision resource.
Watch: the DipMSK in four minutes
Two short videos covering what this exam is and whether it fits your plan. Free, from Core Revision.
What is the DipMSK?
One paper, 180 questions in 180 minutes, sat remotely. What the exam is, who can sit it, and what it costs.
Is the DipMSK worth it?
An honest answer: where it earns its keep, and the three cases where a different route is the right one.
Quick answers about the DipMSK
Checked against the FSEM's own pages on 16 October 2026.
When is the next DipMSK exam?
Thursday 27 May 2027, sat online. Applications open on Monday 11 January 2027 and close on Thursday 1 April 2027.
How much does the DipMSK cost?
£296, subject to the FSEM's annual price review. No course is required.
What is the DipMSK exam format?
180 single-best-answer questions in 180 minutes, with a 15-minute comfort break after 90 minutes. You sit it online with remote invigilation, on a fixed date and time.
Who can sit the DipMSK?
Doctors, physiotherapists, advanced nurse practitioners and other allied health professionals. International healthcare professionals registered with their own regulator can apply too. The Faculty considers other candidates individually.
How many attempts do I get at the DipMSK?
Six. There is no separate resit sitting, so after a fail you enter a later exam.
When do DipMSK results come out?
The FSEM says no later than six weeks after the exam.
What do I get with Core Revision's DipMSK access?
1,000 original single-best-answer questions across 18 subjects, drills by module, a timed 180-question mock and the DipMSK Exam Trainer. Access is £49.99 for 12 months. You can try ten questions free first.
Our free guides to the DipMSK
Dates, fees, format and revision plans, checked against the college’s own pages. Newest first. Still choosing a diploma? Compare all eight side by side.
- Single-best-answer technique for the DipMSK: seven ways to lose marks, and how to avoid each
- Is the DipMSK worth it for advanced nurse practitioners?
- 12 weeks to the DipMSK: a plan for starting from scratch
- How the DipMSK is marked: the pass mark, results day and resits
- DipMSK for GPs: what the diploma adds to a portfolio career
- How to apply for the DipMSK 2027: eligibility, the form, ID and fees, step by step
- 8 weeks to the DipMSK: a realistic study plan for GPs and physios with a full-time job
- What actually happens in the DipMSK exam
- Septic arthritis vs transient synovitis: how the DipMSK actually tests it
- DipMSK 2027: exam dates, syllabus and how to prepare
- Can international clinicians sit the DipMSK? Eligibility explained
- Is the DipMSK worth it for physiotherapists?
